indeterminate bands on western blot: whats your take?

My understanding is that an indeterminate band on the western blot is not low enough to call "absent" but not high enough to call "present"?

My sons IgG was considered negative with
23-25 IND
31 IND
39 IND
41 ++
58+

and his IgM was positive (Igenex standards, not CDC) with
18 +
31+
39 IND
41 +
58 +

I did some reading and saw info on the CDC site that says tests may have low bands if you have been treated with any abx during the first few weeks of infection, which my son had about a month after infection for 10 days, because the body isn't given an opportunity to form antibodies.

I also read that 41 isn't specific to borrelia but that it is specific to spirochetes. I looked up spirochetes and it seems that borrelia is the only spirochete that the average American child would be exposed to (we don't have dogs and I doubt its syphilis).

I am just thinking of ways to explain to the pediatrician how this is truly positive....

Thanks, Summer3.

My son isn't going to be treated by the pedi; I have a naturopathic dr in southern VT who is treating him. I was just thinking of how to explain just has positive this is bc his pedi should be getting a copy.

Funny thing. They should have rcvd the results on Monday yet they haven't called. Guess they don't really care!!

So am I right in assuming that IND means something was there...just not enough to call it a true "present"?